Reader Question 7 Reader Question 7 published on January 24, 2012Read more posts by the author of Reader Question 7, KoryBing2 Comments on Reader Question 7 The original post for this comic was lost in a site crash. This is a repost.
If Grecian Sphinxes can produce Egyptian Sphinxes, and Egyptian Sphinxes can produce Grecian Sphinxes, and the offspring are always Grecian if female and Egyptian if male, how exactly are they separate species instead of one sexually dimorphic species? I’d really like to know what the reasoning for that is.
I think the sphinx are a universal species. The “Greek” or “Egyptian” look could have been the preferred form adopted by that culture. The Greeks had much more finesse with their art and so a slim-style Sphinx fit more in their culture. Whereas the Ancient Egyptian’s seemed to do more block style art that could be more easily replicated, possibly stamped, so the smoother heavier lines of the “Egyptian” Sphinx could have been more readily adopted. The division of Ancient Human art preferences could have been they way the species sub-labeled themselves for classifications. Similar to descriptions of facial features, skin color, hair type, ect.